Talk:House of Vlas-Florea

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Okay, I need some help here. I'm trying to figure out precisely who was in control of Romania/Oltenia in late 1600s. I know that *here* that would almost certainly be the Ottoman Empire. Who would that be *there* please? Zahir 09:18, 11 December 2005 (PST)


I'd just like a confirmation please. After carefully reading the articles on Hungary and others, I would assume that in the late 1600s the Ottoman Empire dominated the Balkans and that the countries we today call Romania were part of that Empire. Am I right or wrong? Zahir 06:46, 12 December 2005 (PST)

I would say, you are 100% right. Hungary was invaded 1548, so until this date, Turks had to have occupied all the extent of what we call *there* Romanian Federation. The situation was similar to *here*, and I think even worse, because of later break of Turkish yoke. Jan II. 07:54, 12 December 2005 (PST)
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