Talk:James I of England and Scotland

According to the List of English Monarchs, James I was the son-in-law of Richard III, not his grandson, with Margaret being his wife, not his mother. Also, *here*'s James V of Scotland came to the throne in 1513. Thus, unless there was a difference in Scotland as well, he would've still been Duke of Rothesay when he inherited the English throne, but perhaps James IV might've died a couple years earlier Nik 19:29, 25 December 2005 (PST)

Quite right. I mis-read the entry. Have now altered the article to read "son in law." I rather like the sloppiness of having James I be Duke of Rothesay when he assumes the English throne, then becoming King of both countries a year later. Presumably--if we use the format I've proposed--Richard III would have confirmed him as Duke of Lancaster sometime after his marriage to Margaret. Make sense? Zahir 19:50, 25 December 2005 (PST)

This is up for de-proposalizing very soon. Anybody want to make comments, questions, suggestions, etc.? Zahir 09:34, 30 January 2006 (PST)